A message path question

Doug Lerner doug at webcrossing.com
Sat Jan 24 08:27:48 EST 2004


I have a stack and a substack

    Stack A (contains a preOpenStack)
        Stack B (contains a preOpenStack)

I have a "pass preOpenStack" as the last line of my preOpenStack handlers.

It seems that when I open Stack B that *both* of the preOpenStack handlers
run - the one for Stack B and then the one for Stack A.

Is that because I have the "pass" statement in there?

It seems like I should remove the pass statement. Any idea why the docs in
their examples include it? It seems like it would only be useful if you also
wanted the main stack's preOpenStack handler to run. Isn't that right?

doug



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